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T O P I C R E V I E W
bex
Posted - 12 November 2008 : 15:25:04 My husband is considering bankruptcy and lives with me in our house which both deeds and mortgage are, and always have been in my name. It was purchased 7 years ago and my earnings have always been sufficient to pay the mortgage. Will the court treat it as one of his assets or mine?
1 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First)
John
Posted - 12 November 2008 : 16:32:49 Hi it will depend on the level of equity in the property as even if he is not on the mortgage or the deeds he will have a legal proprietary interest in the property by way of his regular contributions towards the upkeep of the household.