Hi, I have been hearing different things about a 2nd charge lender repossessing a property. I have been told that they need the permission of the 1st charge lender before they can take legal proceedings and have also been told that they don't!! Does anyone know for certain the answer please. Thanks
I think they can repossess it without consent from the 1st charge holder but they will need the permission of the 1st chargeholder to sell the property, thats my understanding but I may be wrong
repossession
Posted - 04 May 2009 : 13:32:27
