My wife and I have been living with my mum for 14 years since I was made redundant 1 week before marraige. We have never paid for household costs or maintenance up to 3 months ago when, with the cost of living so high my mum asked us to contribute a 1/3 each. I have now paid £360 altold as cash for my share of household bills.
Will this give me a beneficial interest in the house if I go bankrupt and if so to what extent with a payment of just £360 in 14 years.
From what you have said I cannot see that there is any way to propose that you have any claim on your mothers house. You have simply paid an appropriate amount of rent / living costs for 3 months.
Paul Johns Assisted Bankruptcy Specialists Reviva UK
For a Free Impartial Review before taking the leap call me @ Reviva UK www.revivauk.com
you don't mention if your Mum's house is paid for or still mortgaged. I agree with Paul in that from the info you have given I don't see you have an interest but if the house was owned by Mum and no mortgage prior to you moving in then it wouldn't have mattered how much you had contributed over the years you would still not have an interest.
beneficial interest in the house ?
Posted - 08 November 2008 : 20:12:49
